SOLUTION
For f and g to be inverses, then
[tex]f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x[/tex]Now
[tex]\begin{gathered} f(g(x))=2(\frac{x}{2}+4)-8 \\ =\frac{2x}{2}+8-8 \\ =x \end{gathered}[/tex]Also
[tex]\begin{gathered} g(f(x))=\frac{2x-8}{2}+4 \\ =\frac{2x-8+8}{2} \\ =\frac{2x}{2} \\ =x \end{gathered}[/tex]Since we got x in both cases, hence f and g are inverses of each other
The answer is YES