Hjeanbean6864 Hjeanbean6864
  • 31-01-2024
  • Mathematics
contestada

If lima→[infinity] 1/a ∫₀[infinity] x²+ax+1/1+x⁴. tan⁻¹(1/x)dx is equal to π/2 k,wherek in N equals to
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 32
(D) 48

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